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PSYC 2301 PRACTICE TESTS

 

Unit One

1. Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of _____.

  1. conscious and unconscious mental activity
  2. observable responses to the environment
  3. behavior and mental processes
  4. thoughts, feelings and perceptions

2. The essential difference between behavior and mental processes is:

  1. complexity.
  2. observability.
  3. controllability.
  4. ease of description.

3. Which of the following is not a goal of psychology?

  1. to control
  2. to understand
  3. to influence
  4. to describe

4. When a psychologist develops a tentative explanation of facts gathered in an investigation, he/she has formed a _____.

  1. correlation
  2. theory
  3. mental process
  4. hypothesis

5. _____ is usually credited with founding the first psychological laboratory.

  1. William James
  2. Wilhelm Wundt
  3. Edward Titchener
  4. John Watson

 6. Structuralists used a technique in their research, in which trained observers would attempt to analyze their own conscious experiences. This technique was called _____.

  1. correlation
  2. psychoanalysis
  3. introspection
  4. a case study

7. Functionalism would agree that the human mind:

  1. evolved to promote survival.
  2. cannot be studied by man.
  3. can be isolated into basic elements.
  4. is best studied by introspection.

8. William James was highly influential in the development of _____.

  1. psychoanalysis
  2. Gestalt psychology
  3. structuralism
  4. functionalism

9. The first practical test of intelligence was developed to _____.

  1. provide France with a college entrance examination
  2. determine educational pathways for children
  3. test the memory abilities of American workers
  4. diagnose mentally retarded criminals

10. The ideas of Pavlov and Watson influenced the school of _____.

  1. behaviorism
  2. psychoanalysis
  3. structuralism
  4. Gestalt psychology

11. _____ is the contemporary view which combines aspects of both behaviorism and cognitive psychology.

  1. Skinner’s behaviorism
  2. Psychoanalysis
  3. Humanism
  4. Social learning theory

12. Adherents to Albert Bandura’s viewpoint are best described as _____.

  1. contemporary psychoanalysts
  2. social learning theorists
  3. Gestalt psychologists
  4. Neofunctionalists

13. The _____ school of psychology was founded by Sigmund Freud.

  1. behaviorism
  2. humanism
  3. psychoanalytic
  4. Gestalt

14. Which psychological approach emphasizes unconscious motives for behavior?

  1. behavioral
  2. cognitive
  3. psychoanalytic
  4. social learning

15. _____ was a prominent leader in the field of humanistic psychology.

  1. B. F. Skinner
  2. Albert Bandura
  3. Sigmund Freud
  4. Carl Rogers

16. Psychologists who study the role of the brain in mental processing use the _____.

  1. neuroscience perspective
  2. psychoanalytic approach
  3. humanistic viewpoint
  4. sociocultural viewpoint

17. An individual’s sense of belonging to a particular group is best defined as _____.

  1. self-concept
  2. ethnic identity
  3. human diversity
  4. cultural relativity

18. Cultures that emphasize the importance of individual rights, goals, and accomplishments are considered to be _____.

  1. collectivist
  2. modernistic
  3. individualistic
  4. culturally diverse

19. Modern psychology can be roughly divided into which two broad areas of endeavor?

  1. cognitive and experimental
  2. educational and experimental
  3. basic and applied
  4. experimental and basic

20. The practice of psychiatry is most like the specialty of _____ psychology.

  1. experimental
  2. developmental
  3. biological
  4. clinical

21. If a therapist advertises in the phone book that he is "Roger Smith, therapist concentrating in the treatment of depression," you could assume that he probably:

  1. holds a Ph.D.
  2. is a psychiatrist.
  3. is not licensed.
  4. is a clinical psychologist.

22. A psychologist has developed an explanation for why we sleep. In scientific terms, his/her explanation would be called a/an _____.

  1. theory
  2. hypothesis
  3. observation
  4. correlation

23. An hypothesis is used to _____.

  1. determine scientific truths.
  2. test a theory
  3. determine if a sample is representative
  4. explain scientific relationships

24. A psychologist needs information directly from a lot of people in a very short period of time. He/she would probably benefit from using the _____ method to obtain it.

  1. clinical
  2. formal experimental
  3. survey
  4. natural observation

25. A research study found a relationship between amount of sleep and job performance. The study probably utilized the _____ method of research.

  1. descriptive
  2. sociocultural
  3. industrial
  4. correlational

26. A coefficient of correlation indicates _____.

  1. the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables
  2. a cause and effect relationship between two variables
  3. that the research was descriptive in method
  4. the degree to which the research followed the scientific method

27. A psychology class found a strong correlation between armed robbery and ice cream sales. They could reasonably conclude from this data that _____.

  1. armed robbery causes people to eat ice cream
  2. the incidence of armed robbery is higher near ice cream shops
  3. maybe a third factor, such as seasonal temperature, is involved
  4. eating ice cream causes people to become more likely to commit armed robbery

28. A danger in using the correlation strategy is that _____.

  1. one might attribute causation between two events
  2. the strategy may be unethical if used without caution
  3. there may not be sufficient experimental control
  4. we cannot predict one variable from another

29. The _____ research technique allows reasonably confident conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships.

  1. case study
  2. correlational
  3. descriptive survey
  4. formal experiment

30. If you believe that anxiety causes poor test performance, the best research technique you can use to support or refute that hypothesis is probably the _____ method.

  1. descriptive
  2. formal experiment
  3. clinical
  4. correlational

31. The advantage of the experimental method over a correlational study is that an experiment _____.

  1. is more easily generalized to real life situations
  2. can consist of as little as one observation of a single individual
  3. can discover cause-and-effect relationships
  4. is easier to do and poses fewer ethical problems

32. A researcher has 40 people to assign to two groups. He flips a coin repeatedly, and all the "heads" go into group one and the "tails" into group two. This is an example of _____.

  1. monetary assignment
  2. experimenter bias
  3. random assignment
  4. treatment effects

33. A psychologist is studying the effects of varying levels of caffeine on anxiety. In this experiment, caffeine is the _____.

  1. correlation cofficient
  2. dependent variable
  3. independent variable
  4. uncontrolled variable

34. A psychologist studied the effect of blood alcohol level on driving behavior. In this study, driving behavior was the _____ variable.

  1. control
  2. independent
  3. dependent
  4. manipulated

35. The _____ group does not receive the independent variable in a formal experiment.

  1. applied
  2. control
  3. dependent
  4. experimental

36. An experimenter is testing a new drug to see if it actually helps reduce anxiety. He is utilizing two groups of volunteers. The experimental group will get the new drug and the control group will be given a _____.

  1. sample
  2. placebo
  3. manipulation check
  4. therapy treatment

37. When is deception allowed in a psychological experiment?

  1. When it will not harm the participant and when the participant is debriefed.
  2. When the researcher has a Ph.D. in experimental psychology.
  3. Only when the participants agree to it before the experiment begins.
  4. Deception is never allowed in psychological research.

38. Animal behavior is often studied by psychologists primarily because _____.

  1. it is more precise than human behavior
  2. animals do not have free will
  3. it is easier to control the experimental conditions
  4. animal research is usually less expensive

39. In order for a study to be valid, the participants in the study must be _____ all the people in the population to which the results will apply.

  1. unique from
  2. secluded from
  3. unusual compared to
  4. representative of

40. The preferred method of assigning participants to experimental and control groups is called _____.

  1. manipulation checking
  2. stratified assignment
  3. random assignment
  4. group correlation assignment

41. What is the route that a message takes within a neuron?

  1. cell body > dendrite > axon
  2. dendrite > cell body > axon
  3. axon > cell body > dendrite
  4. synapse > dendrite > axon

42. How do "nerves" differ from "neurons?"

  1. There is no practical difference in the two terms.
  2. Neurons are clusters of nerves.
  3. Nerves are bundles of long neurons.
  4. Neurons do not have a cell body.

43. The physical junction between two neurons is called the _____.

  1. node of Ranvier
  2. myelin sheath
  3. synapse
  4. interneuron

44. Which is a true statement about neurotransmitters?

  1. Neurotransmitters are only hypothetical for explanatory purposes.
  2. Neurotransmitters are released from endocrine glands.
  3. Neurotransmitters may be inhibitory or excitatory.
  4. Any neurotransmitter will always cause a neuron to "fire."

45. Pain receptors transmit information to the brain via _____.

  1. hormonal systems
  2. association neurons
  3. efferent neurons
  4. afferent neurons

46. _____ and _____ are the two major divisions of the nervous system.

  1. sympathetic; parasympathetic
  2. somatic; autonomic
  3. central; peripheral
  4. brain; spinal cord

47. A polygraph can monitor changes in heart rate, breathing, and sweating. It is actually monitoring the _____ nervous system.

  1. somatic
  2. afferent
  3. central
  4. autonomic

48. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are divisions of the _____ nervous system.

  1. central
  2. afferent
  3. autonomic
  4. somatic

49. The _____ division of the nervous system helps conserve energy by calming the body.

  1. central
  2. somatic
  3. parasympathetic
  4. sympathetic

50. Motives and emotions are heavily influenced by the _____.

  1. cerebellum
  2. hypothalamus
  3. reticular formation
  4. thalamus

51. The _____ controls conscious experience and intelligence.

  1. cerebral cortex
  2. cingulate cortex
  3. hippocampus
  4. limbic system

52. The large bundle of axons that connect the two halves of the brain is the _____.

  1. basal ganglia
  2. cingulate gyrus
  3. hypothalamus
  4. corpus callosum

53. Spatial and artistic abilities appear to be processed primarily in the ____ hemisphere.

  1. occipital
  2. frontal
  3. left
  4. right

54. The pituitary gland is primarily controlled by the _____.

  1. thyroid
  2. corpus callosum
  3. hypothalamus
  4. hippocampus

55. The gland known as the "master" gland, because of it’s extensive influence on the other endocrine glands, is the _____.

  1. thyroid
  2. pituitary
  3. hypothalamic
  4. pineal

56. Hormones differ from neurotransmitters, in that hormones are _____.

  1. chemical messengers
  2. carried in the blood stream
  3. not regulated by the brain
  4. by-products of neurotransmitters

57. A fertilized human egg contains _____ pairs of chromosomes.

  1. 20
  2. 23
  3. 26
  4. 30

58. Siblings would have the same genes if _____.

  1. their parents are brother and sister
  2. each inherits dominant genes
  3. they are fraternal twins
  4. they are monozygotic twins

59. Brown hair, dark eyes, and farsightedness are common examples of _____ traits.

  1. neutral
  2. recessive
  3. dominant
  4. regressive

60. Twin studies have revealed _____ about the development of sexual orientation.

  1. It is not influenced by heredity.
  2. Dizygotic twins have the same sexual orientation 98% of the time.
  3. It is a completely learned behavior.
  4. Heredity is a factor in sexual orientation.

Answers

1(C), 2(B), 3(A), 4(B), 5(B), 6(C), 7A), 8(D), 9(B), 10(A), 11(D), 12(B), 13(C), 14(C), 15(D), 16(A), 17(B), 18(C), 19(C), 20(D), 21(C), 22(A), 23(B), 24(C), 25(D), 26(A), 27(C), 28(A), 29(D), 30(B), 31(C), 32(C), 33(C), 34(C), 35(B), 36(B), 37(A), 38(C), 39(D), 40(C), 41(B), 42(C), 43(C), 44(C), 45(D), 46(C), 47(D), 48(C), 49(C), 50(B), 51(A), 52(D), 53(D), 54(C), 55(B), 56(B), 57(B), 58(D), 59(C), 60(D)

 

Unit Two

1. Which of the following is an acceptable definition of consciousness?

  1. an ordered experience
  2. cortical activity
  3. a state of awareness
  4. any hypnagogic state

2. Divided consciousness is most useful in understanding _____.

  1. REM processes
  2. hypnosis
  3. schizophrenia
  4. psychological dependence

3. If a person’s eyes are moving back and forth rapidly under the eyelids, it is likely that he/she is _____.

  1. in the deepest level of sleep
  2. dreaming
  3. in a hypnagogic state
  4. awakening

4. Freud considered _____ to be the "royal road to the unconscious mind."

  1. dreams
  2. meditation
  3. the ego
  4. hypnosis

5. Freud called the "hidden meaning" of a dream its _____ content, and the story you remember when you wake-up, the _____ content.

  1. surface; manifest
  2. latent; manifest
  3. manifest; latent
  4. manifest; surface

6. Long distance runners appear to sleep longer and spend more time in deep sleep after a race. This seems to support the _____ theory of sleep.

  1. protection
  2. environmental
  3. deprivation
  4. restorative

7. Being deprived of REM sleep for several days _____.

  1. is not as harmful as being deprived of sleep for an entire night
  2. produces irritability and inefficiency
  3. causes emotional collapse
  4. has no noticeable effects

8. Which of the following statements about sleepwalking is false?

  1. It occurs in the deepest part of non-REM sleep.
  2. It is most common in children before the age of puberty.
  3. Adults may sleepwalk, especially if under stress.
  4. It is a sign of abnormal behavior in adults.

9. Jerry is in the middle of a divorce and is having trouble at his job. He has just begun to have a sleep disorder. Which disorder is he most likely having?

  1. sleep apnea
  2. narcolepsy
  3. insomnia
  4. sleeptalking

10. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by _____.

  1. sleepwalking and sleeptalking
  2. an anxious, panicky feeling
  3. irresistible urges to fall asleep
  4. excessively long sleep periods

11. _____ is a sleep disorder that causes a person to stop breathing for short periods of time.

  1. Insomnia
  2. Somnambulism
  3. Narcolepsy
  4. Sleep apnea

12. An altered state of consciousness, sometimes achieved during meditation, that transcends normal human experience is called _____.

  1. a transcendental mantra
  2. a transcendental state
  3. supreme meditation
  4. astral meditation

13. Whenever John is feeling down or stressed out, he turns to marijuana to help him relax. His friends notice that he is "relaxing" more and more frequently these days. It is likely that John is _____ marijuana.

  1. developing tolerance to
  2. developing cross-tolerance to
  3. becoming physiologically addicted to
  4. becoming psychologically dependent on

14. Jim needed only a small amount of a drug to feel euphoric when he first started. Now, six months later, he needs almost three times that much for the same feeling. Jim _____.

  1. is addicted to the drug
  2. has developed psychological dependence
  3. has developed tolerance
  4. is suffering pre-withdrawal symptoms

15. Painful withdrawal symptoms and increased tolerance are characteristic of _____.

  1. marijuana abuse
  2. cocaine abuse
  3. psychological addiction
  4. physiological addiction

16. Sue smoked heavily during her pregnancy. Her newborn will most likely be:

  1. underweight.
  2. mentally retarded.
  3. hyperactive.
  4. timid and fearful.

17. Psychotropic drugs that increase central nervous system activity, and provide a sense of energy and wellbeing are called _____.

  1. depressants
  2. tranquilizers
  3. hallucinogens
  4. stimulants

18. When a person sees, hears, or feels something that is not real, he/she is said to be having a/an _____.

  1. delusion
  2. astral projection
  3. out of body experience
  4. hallucination

19. What is the final stage of the four stages of alcoholism?

  1. crucial stage
  2. pre-alcoholic stage
  3. chronic stage
  4. prodromal stage

20. About how many cigarette smokers are able to completely stop without help?

  1. less than 5%
  2. less than 12%
  3. about 20%
  4. about 38%

21. Learning is defined as a _____ change in behavior due to _____.

  1. temporary; experience
  2. biological; reinforcement
  3. relatively permanent; experience
  4. biological; maturation

22. Pavlov described classical conditioning as learning through _____.

  1. association
  2. consequences
  3. modeling
  4. responding

23. In order to "cry" during a theater scene, an actress held a handkerchief soaked in onion juice close to her nose. The onion juice served as a/an _____.

  1. conditioned response
  2. unconditioned response
  3. conditioned stimulus
  4. unconditioned stimulus

24. If your dog associates the sound of an electric can opener with being fed, and comes running whenever he hears the can opener, the classical conditioning term for his/her new running behavior is called a/an _____.

  1. unconditioned response
  2. unconditioned stimulus
  3. conditioned response
  4. conditioned stimulus

25. Irrational fears of an object or situation that are believed to have been caused by classical conditioning are called _____.

  1. psychosomatic illnesses
  2. avoidance behaviors
  3. phobias
  4. stimulus discriminations

26. _____ is a key element in operant conditioning.

  1. The type of stimulus used
  2. The nature of the learning task
  3. The consequences of a behavior
  4. Whether a response is elicited or not

27. Research on operant conditioning suggests that the longer you delay in rewarding a good behavior, the _____.

  1. less impact the reward has
  2. more tantalizing the reward becomes
  3. more strength gained by the conditioned stimulus
  4. less necessary is the conditioned response

28. Which of the following best describes a primary reinforcer?

  1. They are learned in childhood.
  2. They are classically conditioned responses.
  3. They are the same as unconditioned responses.
  4. They are not acquired through learning.

29. A neutral stimulus may become a secondary reinforcer _____.

  1. through extinction
  2. through stimulus discrimination
  3. by pairing it with a primary reinforcer
  4. by pairing it with an unconditional response

30. Many psychiatric hospitals offer patients the chance to earn tokens for performing chores, such as cleaning up their rooms, making their beds, etc. The tokens can be used to purchase items at a hospital "store," such as candy or soft drinks. This is an example of _____.

  1. secondary reinforcement
  2. primary reinforcement
  3. negative reinforcement
  4. cognitive restructuring

31. Someone who checks the coin return every time he/she passes a public phone booth is probably reinforced on a _____schedule.

  1. fixed ratio
  2. fixed interval
  3. variable ratio
  4. variable interval

32. The strategy of teaching a complex behavior by reinforcing closer and closer approximations to the final behavior to be learned is called _____.

  1. modeling
  2. shaping
  3. interval training
  4. aversive conditioning

33. Which of the following is a good example of negative reinforcement?

  1. A pig learns to grunt to obtain food.
  2. After a pig learns to grunt for food, it stops grunting when it is no longer hungry.
  3. A pig learns to grunt to escape from electric shock.
  4. After a pig learns to grunt for food, it stops grunting if it is punished.

34. You fear that your date will not like your idea of going to a school dance, so you do not even mention it. This is an example of _____.

  1. escape behavior
  2. extinction
  3. primary reinforcement
  4. avoidance behavior

35. John loves to receive mail, and over the years he has learned to recognize the sound of the approaching mail truck versus other vehicles passing his house. This is called:

  1. stimulus discrimination.
  2. stimulus generalization.
  3. response generalization.
  4. vicarious reinforcement.

36. If the state police drive yellow fords, you may immediately check your speed any time you see a yellow ford approaching. This reaction is known as _____.

  1. an escape response
  2. stimulus discrimination
  3. superstitious behavior
  4. stimulus generalization

37. The process of learning through observation is known as _____.

  1. modeling
  2. acquired learning
  3. operant learning
  4. insight learning

38. Research indicates that it is easier to condition people to fear things that have some intrinsic association with danger, such as snakes, heights, or spiders, versus things that are not normally associated with danger, such as crowds or elevators. This suggests that people are _____ prepared to learn to fear certain things.

  1. psychologically
  2. biologically
  3. intuitively
  4. latently

39. Reinforcing stimuli that accidentally follow a behavior, but appear to the individual as the natural consequence of that behavior, often lead to _____ reinforcement.

  1. accidental
  2. latent
  3. superstitious
  4. inferred

40. Martin Seligman has suggested that _____ often develops through learned helplessness.

  1. depression
  2. a phobia
  3. schizophrenia
  4. superstitious behavior

41. A mental category for organizing objects and events in the environment is called a:

  1. theory.
  2. hypothesis.
  3. principle
  4. concept

42. _____ is a problem solving strategy that involves testing one possible solution after another.

  1. Mental set
  2. Heuristic
  3. Artificial intelligence
  4. Trial-and-error

43. Which of the following is a characteristic of expertise?

  1. limited to specific areas
  2. high degree of risk taking
  3. low level of awareness of errors
  4. focus on one task at a time

44. The question, "How many ways can you use a paper clip?" calls for _____ .

  1. convergent thinking
  2. an object view
  3. a mental set
  4. divergent thinking

45. It is thought that creative people have a greater ability to use _____ thinking.

  1. conjunctive
  2. associative
  3. convergent
  4. divergent

46. The basic units of sound in a language are called _____.

  1. morphemes
  2. syntax
  3. holophrases
  4. phonemes

47. The theory that the structure of our language influences the way we think is expressed by _____.

  1. Noam Chompsky’s theory of transformational grammar
  2. Benjamin Whorf’s theory of linguistic relativity
  3. Beatrix Gardner’s theory of subhuman communication
  4. Herbert Terrace’s theory of phonemic development

48. Several efforts have been made to teach apes human language, with varying degrees of success. The big issue seems to be whether apes _____.

  1. have the anatomy for speech
  2. have the intelligence for speech
  3. can generate new combinations of language
  4. can be taught American Sign Language

49. The ability of an individual to reason, to adapt, and to learn from experience is a definition of _____.

  1. cognition
  2. creativity
  3. language
  4. intelligence

50. _____ popularized the term "intelligence" and believed that intelligence is inherited.

  1. Galton
  2. Spearman
  3. Darwin
  4. Binet

51. The ability to learn, or to invent, new strategies for dealing with new problems is called _____.

  1. a mental set
  2. expertise
  3. fluid intelligence
  4. specific intelligence

52. _____ was the first person to develop a useful measure of intelligence.

  1. Galton
  2. Sternberg
  3. Terman
  4. Binet

53. In the original Stanford-Binet, IQ was calculated as "mental age _____ chronological age, ____ 100."

  1. divided by; divided by
  2. divided by; multiplied by
  3. subtracted from; divided by
  4. subtracted from; multiplied by

54. According to the original Stanford-Binet formula for IQ, if a child’s mental age is greater than his/her chronological age, this would mean that _____.

  1. the child is brighter than normal
  2. the child is about average
  3. the child is less intelligent than normal
  4. a calculation error was made

55. In a normal distribution, scores tend to _____.

  1. fall in the middle range
  2. be either high or low
  3. be randomly scattered
  4. fall between +1 and –1

56. If a person receives similar scores on a test that she takes several times on different occasions, then the test is said to be _____.

  1. objective
  2. valid
  3. reliable
  4. normed

57. If an IQ test given at your local school system proves to be poor at predicting later school performance, and has a low correlation with the very best IQ tests, you can suspect that the test has low _____.

  1. reliability
  2. uniformity
  3. validity
  4. standardization

58. _____ is a true statement concerning the intelligence scores of identical twins.

  1. They are very similar.
  2. They resemble those of dizygotic twins.
  3. They are unrelated to their natural parents.
  4. They indicate that intelligence is mostly influenced by environment.

59. What is the importance of intelligence test scores in modern society?

  1. The correlation between IQ and occupational success is low.
  2. People with IQs below 85 are not employable.
  3. There is a negative correlation between high tech jobs and high salaries.
  4. People with high IQ scores tend to perform better in complex jobs.

60. Which of the four designations of retardation accounts for the largest number of retarded individuals in this country?

  1. profound
  2. severe
  3. moderate
  4. mild

Answers

1(C), 2(B), 3(B), 4(A), 5(B), 6(D), 7(B), 8(D), 9(C), 10(C), 11(D), 12(B), 13(D), 14(C), 15(D), 16(A), 17(D), 18(D), 19(C), 20(C), 21(C), 22(A), 23(D), 24(C), 25(C), 26(C), 27(A), 28(D), 29(C), 30(A), 31(C), 32(B), 33(C), 34(D), 35(A), 36(D), 37(A), 38(B), 39(C), 40(A), 41(D), 42(D), 43(A), 44(D), 45(D), 46(D), 47(B), 48(C), 49(D), 50(A), 51(C), 52(D), 53(B), 54(A), 55(A), 56(C), 57(C), 58(A), 59)D), 60(D)

 

Unit Three

1. Developmental psychology is best described as the study of _____.

  1. the physical human growth process
  2. how people become individuals
  3. how the environment shapes human beings
  4. changes in behavior across the entire life span

2. The nature versus nurture issue involves the relative contribution of _____ to human development.

  1. genes and chromosomes
  2. learning and culture
  3. society and family
  4. genes and environment

3. Imprinting _____ the critical period hypothesis.

  1. is the same thing as
  2. is an example of
  3. is the opposite of
  4. occurs independent of

4. Jean Piaget is known for his influential theory of _____ development.

  1. personality
  2. cognitive
  3. physical
  4. moral

5. Your roommate advises you not to cheat on an exam because you might get caught and expelled from the college. This reasoning is Kohlberg’s _____ level of moral development.

  1. conventional
  2. principled
  3. premoral
  4. equality

6. Erik Erikson sees personality development as _____.

  1. four periods: childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and old age
  2. three crises: puberty, detachment, and bereavement
  3. eight turning points, each with two possible outcomes
  4. five stages, each focusing on an aspect of sexual identity

7. Erikson’s first stage of personality development is _____.

  1. autonomy versus shame and doubt
  2. basic trust versus mistrust
  3. autonomy versus identity
  4. basic trust versus autonomy

8. _____ is the final stage of Erikson’s theory of personality development.

  1. Intimacy vs. isolation
  2. Integrity vs. despair
  3. Industry vs. inferiority
  4. Identity vs. role confusion

9. Piaget believed that children acquire object permanence during the _____ stage.

  1. sensorimotor
  2. preoperational
  3. concrete operational
  4. formal operational

10. "Visual cliff" experiments suggest that infants _____.

  1. cannot perceive depth until nine months of age
  2. develop fear after they experience a stumble or fall
  3. are fearful of heights as early as two weeks old
  4. never show fear of heights unless their mother does

11. A young child talking to his grandmother on the telephone holds up a picture he has painted and says, "How do you like my picture grandma?" He is demonstrating _____.

  1. animism
  2. conservation
  3. egocentrism
  4. object permanence

12. Boys outnumber girls at the _____ levels of verbal ability and at the _____ levels of mathematical problem-solving ability.

  1. high; low
  2. low; high
  3. high; high
  4. low; low

13. Piaget believed that a child usually entered the _____ stage during adolescence.

  1. formal operational
  2. concrete operational
  3. preoperational
  4. sensorimotor

14. Elderly people show declines in _____ when compared with young adults.

  1. knowledge of word meanings
  2. understanding mathematical concepts
  3. solving life problems
  4. fluid intelligence

15. Overall, what effect does aging have on personality characteristics?

  1. Individuals tend to exhibit more positive characteristics.
  2. Individuals tend to exhibit more negative characteristics.
  3. Personalities tend to show more fluctuations.
  4. Fundamental aspects of personality remain fairly stable.

16. Daniel Levinson believes that middle adulthood begins with _____.

  1. the midlife transition
  2. entering middle age
  3. integrity vs. despair
  4. intimacy vs. isolation

17. Erikson views the late sixties and beyond as the stage of _____.

  1. integrity vs. despair
  2. intimacy vs. isolation
  3. late middle age
  4. isolation vs. integrity

18. Kubler-Ross identified the stages experienced by terminally ill patients as occuring in the order of _____.

  1. anger, denial, depression, bargaining & acceptance
  2. acceptance, bargaining, anger, denial & depression
  3. denial, anger bargaining, depression & acceptance
  4. denial, bargaining, anger, depression & acceptance

19. Adoptive parents are most likely to influence their children’s _____.

  1. sexual identities
  2. personality traits
  3. chromosomes
  4. social attitudes

20. What best signifies secure attachment in an 18 to 24 month old toddler?

  1. clinging to the mother
  2. fear of strangers
  3. showing affection for the mother
  4. exploring their environment

21. Motivation must be inferred from _____ because it cannot be directly observed.

  1. psychophysiology
  2. emotions
  3. behaviors
  4. EEG patterns

22. Internal mechanisms of the body that regulate essential life processes, such as hunger, thirst, and temperature control, are known as _____.

  1. homeostatic mechanisms
  2. primary drives
  3. secondary drives
  4. maintenance mechanisms

23. Which of the following is a primary motive?

  1. sex
  2. acceptance
  3. love
  4. achievement

24. The brain area important to the regulation of hunger and satiety is the _____.

  1. hippocampus
  2. reticular formation
  3. hypothalamus
  4. midbrain

25. When our bodies need certain food substances, such as a vitamin or protein, _____.

  1. the thalamus initiates eating behavior
  2. blood fat and blood sugar levels rise
  3. specific hungers may develop
  4. homeostasis creates pituitary activation

26. Some people refuse to eat pork for religious reasons. If one of these people was starving and still refused to eat pork, it could be said that a _____ motive was stronger than a _____ motive.

  1. safety; biological
  2. biological; safety
  3. psychological; primary
  4. primary; psychological

27. The general preference among humans to be with other humans is called the _____.

  1. affiliation motive
  2. acceptance motive
  3. need for self-actualization
  4. opponent-process motive

28. An internal desire to do good just for the sake of doing good is evidence of _____ motivation.

  1. competence
  2. incentive
  3. extrinsic
  4. intrinsic

29. The lowest or most basic level in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs are called _____ needs.

  1. biological
  2. safety
  3. social
  4. self-esteem

30. The highest motive in Maslow’ hierarchy is _____.

  1. biological
  2. belongingness
  3. self-esteem
  4. self-actualization

31. According to the James-Lange theory of emotions _____.

  1. you sweat because you feel nervous
  2. you feel nervous after you stop sweating
  3. your sweating has nothing to do with your feeling nervous
  4. you feel nervous because you notice yourself sweating

32. Which theory of emotion supports the belief that the experience of an emotion occurs simultaneously with bodily arousal?

  1. opponent-process
  2. James-Lange
  3. Cannon-Bard
  4. facial feedback

33. The polygraph actually measures _____.

  1. changes in sympathetic arousal
  2. changes in brain activity
  3. whether or not a person is lying
  4. the degree of guilt a person feels

34. During a polygraph session, a person is asked a series of questions that only the person who committed the crime could answer. This is called a _____ test.

  1. criminal detection
  2. reverse con
  3. subterfuge
  4. guilty knowledge

35. Research shows that people who have been blind since birth exhibit the same facial expressions for basic emotions as people who see normally. This suggests that some emotional expressions are _____.

  1. learned
  2. innate
  3. conditioned
  4. generated

36. Freud used the term _____ to describe the release of pent-up emotional energy.

  1. frustration
  2. catharsis
  3. cathexis
  4. projection

37. The frustration-aggression hypothesis maintains that _____.

  1. frustration is a natural consequence of aggressive behavior
  2. frustration and aggression are unlearned patterns of behavior
  3. aggression is a natural reaction to frustration
  4. both frustration and aggression result from social learning

38. Social learning theory suggests that catharsis in the form of hitting a punching bag or throwing things will lead to _____.

  1. fewer violent acts when frustrated
  2. an increase in violent behavior
  3. better social interactions
  4. learning acceptable ways to vent frustration

39. The rate at which your body uses energy is called _____.

  1. set point
  2. bulimia
  3. metabolism
  4. homeostasis

40. Besides burning calories, why is regular, aerobic exercise important?

  1. It lowers your metabolism.
  2. It keeps metabolism from falling.
  3. It increases your set point.
  4. It wards off anorexia nervosa.

41. A person’s characteristic ways of acting, thinking, and feeling that make that person different from all others is called his/her _____.

  1. somatotype
  2. ego
  3. personality
  4. subjective self

42. If you believe that Karl will make a good class president because he is "outgoing and sensitive," you are subscribing to a _____ perspective.

  1. humanism
  2. trait theory
  3. social learning theory
  4. situationalism

43. Which of the following is not one of the "big five" personality traits?

  1. lovability
  2. neuroticism
  3. agreeableness
  4. extraversion

44. Freud believed that the _____ is a mass of primitive sexual and aggressive instincts that we are born with.

  1. superego
  2. ego
  3. id
  4. ego ideal

45. According to Freud, the major responsibility of the ego is to _____.

  1. find socially acceptable ways for the id to be gratified
  2. prevent the death instinct from destroying the ego ideal
  3. fulfill the desire of the super ego in moral matters
  4. make sure that the process of identification is not hampered

46. A young boy feels guilty after looking through some adult magazines. Freud would say that the source of his guilt is his _____.

  1. id
  2. anal stage
  3. ideal self
  4. superego

47. Erika got angry at her 5th grade teacher, but was afraid to show her anger. Instead, she went home after school and vented her anger on her younger brother. Freud would call this behavior _____.

  1. projection
  2. sublimation
  3. displacement
  4. repression

48. According to Freud, the Oedipal complex and the Electra complex develop and are resolved during the _____ stage of psychosexual personality development.

  1. oral
  2. anal
  3. phallic
  4. genital

49. Most people intuitively understand that incest is wrong, even they are not told this directly. Jung would explain this as part of the _____.

  1. innate id
  2. collective unconscious
  3. collective superego
  4. Electra complex

50. Jung disagreed with Freud’s _____.

  1. emphasis on the unconscious
  2. negative view of the human condition
  3. ideas about innate motives
  4. idea called the collective unconscious

51. A basic theme in Adler’s personality theory is that we grow up in a world of bigger, stronger, wiser, and more powerful adults. Because of this, all children experience _____.

  1. the Oedipal conflict
  2. oral fixation
  3. feelings of inferiority
  4. regressive motivation

52. Adler criticized Freud for denying the importance of the human need for healthy _____.

  1. sexual gratification
  2. peak experiences
  3. social relationships
  4. repression

53. The personality theory that stresses the importance of reinforcement and imitation is _____ theory.

  1. psychoanalytic
  2. humanistic
  3. social learning
  4. existential

54. The social learning theory perception that people are capable of doing what is necessary to reach their goals is known as _____.

  1. self-regulation
  2. reciprocal determination
  3. self-adjustment
  4. self-efficacy

55. Which of the following would be in most agreement with humanistic personality theories?

  1. Humans are pleasure-seeking creatures driven by lust, vengeance, and greed.
  2. Each person is unique and strives to be valued for who they are.
  3. Human beings have no basic qualities but are shaped by their environment.
  4. Each person strives to develop the qualities that promote survival.

56. Maladjustment is seen by Rogers as resulting from _____.

  1. a discrepancy between the ideal self and the real self
  2. rejection and fear of certain ego ideals
  3. faulty reinforcement determinations
  4. poor childhood experiences

57. The personality assessment tool that is used the most is the _____.

  1. observational method
  2. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
  3. interview
  4. projective test

58. The Rorschach "inkblot" test is good example of a/an _____ personality test.

  1. new
  2. objective
  3. projective
  4. abnormal

59. When taking the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), a person is asked to _____.

  1. make up stories about pictures
  2. draw a picture of a house, tree, and a person
  3. answer a series of true/false questions
  4. describe what they see in a scene

60. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a/an _____ personality test designed to discriminate between normal people and those with mental problems.

  1. objective
  2. projective
  3. subjective
  4. retrospective

Answers

1(D), 2(D), 3(B), 4(B), 5(C), 6(C), 7(B), 8(B), 9(A), 10(B), 11(C), 12(B), 13(A), 14(D), 15(D), 16(A), 17(A), 18(C), 19(D), 20(D), 21(C), 22(A), 23(A), 24(C), 25(C), 26(C), 27(A), 28(D), 29(A), 30(D), 31(D), 32(C), 33(A), 34(D), 35(B), 36(B), 37(C), 38(B), 39(C), 40(B), 41(C), 42(B), 43(A), 44(C), 45(A), 46(D), 47(C), 48(C), 49(B), 50(B), 51(C), 52(C), 53(C), 54(D), 55(B), 56(A), 57(C), 58(C), 59(A), 60(A)

 

Unit Four

1. The _____ hypothesis states that abnormal behavior is similar to normal behavior except that it is more severe and harmful.

  1. continuity
  2. psychoanalytic
  3. discontinuity
  4. medical

2. From earliest history until the mid 1700s, abnormal behavior was thought to be a result of _____.

  1. biological imbalances
  2. masturbation
  3. evil spirits
  4. uncleanliness

3. Most contemporary psychologists believe that biological factors _____ behavior disorders.

  1. play at least some role in
  2. are the sole cause of
  3. play no role in
  4. are the primary cause of

4. "Insanity" is best characterized as a _____ term.

  1. medical
  2. legal
  3. psychological
  4. psychiatric

5. An individual who has pervasive, serious problems with nervousness, tension, worry, and fright, is most likely suffering from a/an _____ .

  1. paresis
  2. anxiety disorder
  3. paranoid reaction
  4. conversion disorder

6. The difference between a fear and a phobia, is that a phobia is _____.

  1. based on reality
  2. unrealistic
  3. posttraumatic
  4. more generalized

7. Jennifer worries constantly about grades, classes, and about how her family and friends feel about her. She seems anxious about most everything in her life. She is most likely to be suffering from _____.

  1. a social phobia
  2. generalized anxiety disorder
  3. hypochondriasis
  4. borderline panic disorder

8. An anxiety disorder characterized by long periods of calm broken by intensely uncomfortable anxiety attacks, is called _____.

  1. generalized anxiety disorder
  2. panic anxiety disorder
  3. agoraphobia
  4. obsessive-compulsive disorder

9. Jack was sitting and reading a book, when suddenly he felt as if he was "losing his mind." His heart beat faster, and he began to sweat and tremble. His behavior most resembles _____.

  1. generalized anxiety disorder
  2. specific anxiety disorder
  3. obsessive-compulsive disorder
  4. panic anxiety disorder

10. Brad has been reliving his war experiences since he returned from Vietnam over 20 years ago. He is frequently tense and feels a deep sense of guilt that he survived when others did not. His most likely diagnosis is _____ disorder.

    A. generalized anxiety
    B. dissociative
    C. posttraumatic stress
    D. histrionic personality

11. Peggy is troubled by persistent thoughts about her children being harmed by a strange man. These thoughts will not go away even though she tries her best to think of other things. Her symptoms sound as if she is having _____.

  1. compulsions
  2. hallucinations
  3. obsessions
  4. delusions

12. If a woman feels an irrational need to touch every parking meter she passes as she walks along the street, she may be suffering from a/an _____.

  1. agoraphobia
  2. dissociative state
  3. compulsion
  4. obsessive rumination

13. Disorders which cause an individual to experience symptoms of physical health problems that have psychological rather than physical causes, are known as _____ disorders.

  1. dissociation
  2. psychomedical
  3. somatoform
  4. paranoid

14. Millie goes to the doctor at least twice a month and is always worried about becoming ill, even though her doctor assures her that her health is fine. Millie’s behavior suggests _____.

  1. hypochondriasis
  2. paranoia
  3. psychoanalytic disorder
  4. organic mental disorder

15. Somatoform disorders in which individuals experience serious somatic symptoms, such as functional blindness, deafness, or paralysis, with no physical cause, are known as _____ disorders.

  1. psychogenic pain
  2. conversion
  3. hypochondriacal
  4. fugue

16. Amnesia caused by extreme psychological stress is called _____ amnesia.

  1. physiogenic
  2. dissociative
  3. retrograde
  4. anterograde

17. In dissociative identity disorder, the individual’s original personality is usually _____.

  1. completely destroyed
  2. sensual and uninhibited
  3. rebellious and unconventional
  4. moralistic and unhappy

18. Many psychologists believe that dissociative identity disorder is caused by _____.

  1. lack of id development
  2. childhood sexual abuse
  3. multiple childbirth
  4. drug overdose

19. Juan has periods of boundless energy followed by periods of sadness and depression. These symptoms most closely resembles a/an _____ disorder.

  1. bipolar
  2. anxiety
  3. conversion
  4. organic mental

20. A _____ is a belief that is held despite obvious evidence that it is not true.

  1. delusion
  2. hallucination
  3. catatonia
  4. manic thought

21. Mental patients sometimes hear, see, taste, or feel things that are not real. These false perceptions are called _____.

  1. defense mechanisms
  2. hallucinations
  3. paraphilias
  4. thought disorders

22. Schizophrenia is associated with an excess of receptors for _____.

  1. norepinephrine
  2. dopamine
  3. serotonin
  4. acetycholine

23. Research on the causes of schizophrenia strongly suggests that _____.

  1. there is a genetic predisposition for schizophrenia
  2. almost anybody will develop schizophrenia is exposed to environmental stress
  3. schizophrenic patients suffer from a deficiency of the neurotransmitter serotonin
  4. all of the above are true

24. People who violate social rules and laws, take advantage of others, and feel little, if any, guilt about their behavior are often diagnosed as _____.

  1. antisocial personalities
  2. paranoid schizophrenics
  3. affective psychotics
  4. depersonalization disorders

25. The general goal of clinical psychology is to _____.

  1. educate college students
  2. prescribe medication for mental patients
  3. help those with mental disorders
  4. educate the public about mental illness

26. Psychoanalytic, humanistic, and behavioral are all examples of _____.

  1. client-centered therapy
  2. psychotherapy
  3. group therapy
  4. psychodynamic therapy

27. The highest ethical standards must be maintained during psychotherapy due to the differences in _____ between the therapist and the client.

  1. power
  2. social standing
  3. income
  4. education

28. If a therapist discovers that her client has a problem she is not qualified to treat, she should _____.

    A. go back to school for more training
    B. refer the patient to a therapist qualified in that area
    C. form a research group to include the patient
    D. treat the patient anyway, in order to gain experience in that area

29. If a therapist reveals information about a client to the client’s family members without the client’s consent, this action is _____.

  1. appropriate
  2. mandatory
  3. illegal
  4. common

30. A _____ therapist would be most likely to use free association and dream analysis to explain unconscious motivations.

  1. feminist
  2. cognitive
  3. psychoanalytic
  4. Gestalt

31. A technique used by Freud to encourage clients to talk about whatever comes to mind, giving the unconscious mind an opportunity to slip past the censorship of the ego, is known as _____.

  1. dream interpretation
  2. transference
  3. free association
  4. catharsis

32. A client’s tendency to express feelings of affection and approval for his/her psychoanalyst is called _____.

  1. transference
  2. interpretation
  3. free association
  4. unconditional regard

33. "Client centered" therapy is a form of _____ therapy.

  1. cognitive-behavioral
  2. psychodynamic
  3. Gestault
  4. Humanistic

34. Behavioral therapists view abnormal behavior as _____.

  1. innate
  2. learned
  3. instinctive
  4. caused by transference

35. Systematic desensitization is most effective in treating _____.

  1. frequent nightmares
  2. some psychosexual disorders
  3. phobias
  4. schizophrenia

36. A _____ therapist is most likely to believe that a client acts depressed because his/her behavior is being rewarded by other people.

  1. psychoanalytic
  2. client-centered
  3. Gestault
  4. behavioral

37. If Jan is afraid of crowds and her therapist decides to use the "in vivo flooding technique" to help her, which of the following will Jan most likely be asked to do?

  1. Imagine being in a crowded elevator.
  2. Expose her fear to a therapy group.
  3. Attend a crowded rock concert.
  4. Learn to relax.

38. Which of the following would most likely be a goal of assertiveness training?

  1. humility
  2. absolutist thinking
  3. catharsis
  4. expression of feelings

39. If a therapist has his/her alcoholic client take a drink that has been mixed with a nausea-inducing drug so that the client will become ill after drinking the alcohol, the therapist is using _____.

  1. systematic desensitization
  2. aversive conditioning
  3. social skills training
  4. an unethical procedure

40. Which therapeutic approach emphasizes that people are often disturbed because they mistakenly believe they must please everyone and be successful at everything?

  1. operant conditioning
  2. person-centered therapy
  3. psychoanalysis
  4. rational-emotive therapy

41. Cognitive therapy has been especially helpful in treating _____.

  1. psychogenic fugue
  2. schizophrenia
  3. somatoform disorders
  4. depression

42. A client having a difficult time interacting with others and making new friends might benefit most from _____.

  1. flooding
  2. group therapy
  3. Gestault therapy
  4. catharsis

43. In family therapy, it is assumed that the:

  1. person who has the symptoms does not really have the problem.
  2. person who has the symptoms is actually causing the problem.
  3. problem originates in the interactions of the family members.
  4. healthy family members are responsible for the disturbed member’s behavior.

44. The most common form of medical therapy is _____.

  1. drug therapy
  2. ECT
  3. psychosurgery
  4. frontal lobotomy

45. A client is very depressed, threatening suicide, and not responding to antidepressant drugs. Which of the following treatment is most likely to help him/her?

  1. psychoanalysis
  2. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
  3. prefrontal lobotomy
  4. minor tranquilizers

46. What is a serious disadvantage of prolonged use of antipsychotic medication?

  1. hallucinations
  2. severe memory loss
  3. anorexia nervosa
  4. walking impairment

47. One side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is that the client may _____.

  1. experience severe depression
  2. become schizophrenic
  3. become violent and aggressive
  4. experience memory loss

48. An individual who needs help with a mental problem, but cannot afford to pay much, if anything, for his/her treatment, would best be served by contacting a _____.

  1. board certified psychiatrist
  2. community mental health center
  3. humanistic therapist
  4. counseling psychologist

49. Any professional listed in the phone book under the title "psychiatrist," must by law be _____.

  1. licensed
  2. board certified
  3. psychoanalytically trained
  4. competent

50. If a psychologist tells you that his therapy approach is "eclectic," he means that he _____.

  1. uses an assortment of techniques from different therapies
  2. only works in community settings
  3. has a Ph.D. degree
  4. is trained in the psychodynamic tradition

Answers

1(A), 2(C), 3(A), 4(B), 5(B), 6(B), 7(B), 8(B), 9(D), 10(C), 11(C), 12(C), 13(C), 14(A), 15(B), 16(B), 17(D), 18(B), 19(A), 20(A), 21(B), 22(B), 23(A), 24(A), 25(C), 26(B), 27(A), 28(B), 29(C), 30(C), 31(C), 32(A), 33(D), 34(B), 35(C), 36(D), 37(C), 38(D), 39(B), 40(D), 41(D), 42(B), 43(C), 44(A), 45(B), 46(D), 47(D), 48(B), 49(A), 50(A)

 

Updated 8/15/07